A Visible Sign of the Invisible

In the Acts 19 account, the sign of tongues came first and then they prophesied. This is consistent with what happened at Pentecost. The 120 received the Holy Spirit as revealed by the initial sign of tongues. (Acts 2:4) Peter's message spoken after he was filled with the Holy Spirit is actually prophetic. (Acts 2:38)

"And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: (Tongues was the initial sign)
and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:
And on my servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy:" Acts 2:17-18

Yes or no will suffice.

I take it you disagree with Paul.

it just says they spake tongues and prophesied, nothing about the order.

I'm in no way trying to be rude. I just don't understand why people insist on an opinion rather than just accepting what is written in God's word.

"Then said Jesus to those Jews which believed on him, If ye continue in my word, then are ye my disciples indeed;
And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free." John 8:31-32


My answer remains the same:

The Bible reveals tongues is the sign that a person has received the Holy Spirit. (Acts 2:4, 38; 10:44-45, 19:6) And it states: "But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.
But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you." Rom 8:9-11

Acts 8:12-24 Confirms receiving the Holy Spirit is identifiable.

How could the people be so sure that those who believed and were water baptized had not received the Holy Spirit? And what made the people so sure that the experience had occurred a few days later? (Acts 8:14-19)

Speaking in tongues is different, the sign comes from the inside out when God takes up residence in one's body.

Acts 8:12-24 Confirms receiving the Holy Spirit is identifiable.

How could the people be so sure that those who believed and were water baptized had not received the Holy Spirit? And what made the people so sure that the experience had occurred a few days later? (Acts 8:14-19)

Clearly it was not just the laying on of hands that proved the experience occurred. Simon wanted to buy the ability to do what he witnessed when the apostles laid hands on the people. Think about it. There's no need to pay to have the ability to lay hands on a person. It is clear he wanted to buy the power to demonstrate the receiving of the Holy Spirit;

As revealed elsewhere in scripture, speaking in tongues is the visible sign God chose to reveal when the invisible Holy Spirit initially enters one's body. (Acts 2:4, 33; 10:44-46; 19:6)

God chose the sign. And He certainly does not have to explain Himself. However, some biblical records point to the possible reason why He did it.

1. Tower of Babel - God used tongues as a means to separate people who were disobedient. A reversal of this is seen at Pentecost. God is bringing people back into one body - into unity.

2. James 3 - reveals human beings cannot tame the unruly tongue. However, God can and does when people submit to Him. Speaking in tongues is a conscious act of surrender.

3. There are many external signs when the Holy Spirit is present in an area. As to Pentecost, the wind indicated the Holy Spirit had arrived in the upper room. And flaming tongues sat atop each person revealing that what was about to happen was for all individually.

Speaking in tongues is different, the sign comes from the inside out when God takes up residence in one's body.

Seem to me you are saying a person that does not speak in tongues (as you define the word) does not have the Holy Spirit dwelling in them.
Correct me if I am wrong,
If you believe that you are wrong because it is not according to Scripture.

Truth is established by 2-3 scripture references. (Matt.18:16, 2 Cor. 13:1) I am aware of three accounts that specifically state all those who received the Holy Spirit spoke in tongues. (Acts 2:4, 33; 10:44-46; 19:6) Are you aware of any scriptures that reveal there's another sign? If so, I would really like you to share them because I'm not familiar with any.

... I always thought that the Holy Spirit is best confirmed in a Christian by how that person has changed and grown in godliness and obedience to the Lord through the Holy Spirit.

I don't go by speaking in tongues as evidence of the Holy Spirit because that can be faked, but you can't fake a sustained godliness and obedience to the Lord.

Also, the godliest people I know don't speak in tongues, but the Holy Spirit is very evident in them.


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First let me say, I appreciate your response. But please consider that as human beings we can think many things. Evidence of this is the many denominations that exist worldwide. Many denominational teachings attest to the fact its founders were comfortable with only certain parts rather than scripture as a whole.

To reject speaking in tongues as evidence of the indwelling of the Holy Spirit because people can fake the experience is unwise. People can and do fake many things. However, keep in mind imitation relies upon something authentic.

God's word states there is but one common salvation and everyone is to earnestly seek out the truth that was first delivered to the saints/disciples. (Jude 3) The biblical record is clear. The truth concerning tongues as the sign of receiving the Holy Spirit is revealed through the detailed record of the disciples and others (120) at Pentecost, and on at least 2 other occasions, and is alluded to in Acts 8 as detailed in this Thread.

Also, remember Jesus words in Luke 11:13. He said those who have not received the Holy Spirit should ask the Father for the gift. As I wrote this just now, I was given more insight. Not only do Jesus' words prove the Holy Spirit is not always received spontaneously. God opened my eyes to the fact that the account reveals once again, just as the Acts 8 account does, a person can know without a doubt if they have the Holy Spirit. How?

If it were as simple as you say, there would be no forums. There are many factors at work. For example, Psalm 37: says that if we will delight ourselves in the Lord, He will give us the desires of our hearts. What it means is that God will actually place within our hearts His desires. Some would believe from just a simple reading that He would give the individual's current desires.
So scripture must be understood often by intent, and even through revelation. It's not necessarily apparent from simply reading.
And you actually are being rude if someone asks for a particular manner of response and you do it in the manner you choose. Not that I've taken offense, but love actually defers to the other person.

Then I must assume you believe if one does not speak in tongues they do not have the Holy Spirit dwelling within them which is to say they are not saved.

The Holy Spirit will confirm it to each individual directly. He doesn't have to cause them to speak in tongues for them to know.

They'll know when the Holy Spirit when He gives them wisdom and understanding as they study the Scriptures and have the supernatural ability to actually live a godly and obedient life to the Lord. Growing resistance to habitual sins is also a sure sign that the person has the Holy Spirit.

John 14:26
But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you.

John 16:13
When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come.

Romans 8:26
Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness. For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words.

John 14:17
Even the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees him nor knows him. You know him, for he dwells with you and will be in you.

John 15:26
“But when the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth, who proceeds from the Father, he will bear witness about me.

These verses show how we can know we have the Holy Spirit. None of them say speaking in tongues is one of them.


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I do believe the word of God.

The gospel scriptures referenced reveal the Holy Spirit will come and mentions what He will teach. They do not give any detail concerning what will happen when He indwells a person. Speaking in tongues as the witness of the event was revealed in the Book of Acts immediately after Jesus shed forth the Spirit.

I am sorry you found my unwillingness to state what I believe to be rude. However, it has been my experience that those who ask for a yes or no answer have an ulterior motive for doing so. Giving a direct answer usually results in a personal attack.

I do my best to stay focused on what is or is not found in the word in an attempt to avoid stifling a productive discussion. As unfortunately people have biases that bring conversation to a screeching halt. And as I'm sure you know, hindering the word from going forth is a tactic of the enemy. For when God's word goes forth it will not return void; it brings forth life.

"For as the rain cometh down, and the snow from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it bring forth and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater:
So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it." Isa 55:10-11


However, since I don't want to be labeled rude, here goes. I'll see if my past experience holds true:

You asked, "Is it your contention that anyone who has never spoken in tongues is not saved?"

So there is no confusion by others reading my comment. First, I will reiterate what I shared from scripture. No one can be saved without being indwelt by the Holy Spirit. (Rom. 8:9) And tongues was the sign that the indwelling had taken place in regards to all individuals. The same experience is detailed in 3 separate conversion accounts. (Acts 2:4, 33, 10:44-45, 19:5) And is alluded to in this Thread.

In addition, I was given insight, earlier today, concerning the topic. In Luke 11:13, Jesus said to ask for the Holy Spirit if you have not received the gift. God's provision of a sign allows a person to know without a doubt whether or not they have received the Holy Spirit.
I am aware of no other sign that proves the experience. And therefore since I believe the word of God, my answer is, Yes.

I am sorry you found my unwillingness to state what I believe to be rude. However, it has been my experience that those who ask for a yes or no answer have an ulterior motive for doing so. Giving a direct answer usually results in a personal attack.

I do my best to stay focused on what is or is not found in the word in an attempt to avoid stifling a productive discussion. As unfortunately people have biases that bring conversation to a screeching halt. And as I'm sure you know, hindering the word from going forth is a tactic of the enemy. For when God's word goes forth it will not return void; it brings forth life.

"For as the rain cometh down, and the snow from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it bring forth and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater:
So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it." Isa 55:10-11


However, since I don't want to be labeled rude, here goes. I'll see if my past experience holds true:

You asked, "Is it your contention that anyone who has never spoken in tongues is not saved?"

So there is no confusion by others reading my comment. First, I will reiterate what I shared from scripture. No one can be saved without being indwelt by the Holy Spirit. (Rom. 8:9) And tongues was the sign that the indwelling had taken place in regards to all individuals. The same experience is detailed in 3 separate conversion accounts. (Acts 2:4, 33, 10:44-45, 19:5) And is alluded to in this Thread.

In addition, I was given insight, earlier today, concerning the topic. In Luke 11:13, Jesus said to ask for the Holy Spirit if you have not received the gift. God's provision of a sign allows a person to know without a doubt whether or not they have received the Holy Spirit.
I am aware of no other sign that proves the experience. And therefore since I believe the word of God, my answer is, Yes.

...
All that said, do you know a verse that says we have to have an outward manifestation of the Spirit for one to be indwelled by Him?