Were Nephilim (Gen 6) judged differently by God?

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Did God's forgiveness ever, at any point, apply to angels?

  • Not sure. The Bible does not say

    Votes: 0 0.0%

  • Total voters
    22
May 11, 2022
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וַיִּרְא֤וּ בְנֵי־הָֽאֱלֹהִים֙ אֶת־בְּנ֣וֹת הָֽאָדָ֔ם כִּ֥י טֹבֹ֖ת הֵ֑נָּה וַיִּקְח֤וּ לָהֶם֙ נָשִׁ֔ים מִכֹּ֖ל אֲשֶׁ֥ר בָּחָֽרוּ׃
the divine beings [sons of God] saw how pleasing the human women were and took wives from among those who delighted them
Sorry, I don't use a "contemporary Torah"; I use one "version": a King James Bible. That Bible says God destroyed the world by flood because "the wickedness of man was great".
 
Jan 24, 2024
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Sorry, I don't use a "contemporary Torah"; I use one "version": a King James Bible. That Bible says God destroyed the world by flood because "the wickedness of man was great".
That's your problem because the Torah is what GOD personally gave to Moses.
The TORAH is the truest meaning for the Books of the Law.
 
May 11, 2022
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That's your problem because the Torah is what GOD personally gave to Moses.
The TORAH is the truest meaning for the Books of the Law.
As I stated above, your text came up as from a "contemporary Torah". Can you show me the original Hebrew text, please?
 
Jan 24, 2024
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As I stated above, your text came up as from a "contemporary Torah". Can you show me the original Hebrew text, please?
It matches the the Aleppo Codex

You can't get any better than that but of course it requires one to be able to read Hebrew.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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It wasn't a bad doctrine when Jesus used it or Peter, John, Paul, James, and Jude...natural heirs.
Why insist they were quoting a book and not a person? That is what happens in oral traditions...

Even what you treated as "quotes" in another post were not quotes, but simply similar sayings.
 

Diakonos

Well-known member
Jan 19, 2019
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Anacortes, WA
Every Hebrew occurrence of "bene elohim" and every Greek occurrence of "huilos theou" mean the same thing: "sons of God".
Translating to the same words ≠ having the same meaning. For example, Adam is called "the son of God"...obviously not meaninghe was Jesus. You have made the same assumption with another phrase.

Every Hebrew occurrence of "bene elohim" and every Greek occurrence of "huilos theou" mean the same thing: "sons of God". As to WHO they are referring to is apparently a debate, not the conclusion. But I will give one example:
Job chapter 1 and 2 refer to some "sons of God" who came "before the Lord". I have been told and taught that this meeting took place "before God's throne" in "Heaven". But neither Job 1:6, nor Job 2:1 mentions a throne or "heaven", they simply say "before the Lord". I will show you two other passages of scripture which use the phrase "before the Lord".

Genesis 18:22 And the men turned their faces from thence, and went toward Sodom: but Abraham stood yet before the Lord.
2 Samuel 6:14 And David danced before the Lord with all his might; and David was girded with a linen ephod.

The Bible says that both David and Abraham were "before the Lord" and I trust that you will agree that this occurred on planet earth; not "heaven". So I don't see why the meetings of "sons of God" coming "before the Lord" would have to be in heaven either. The Book of Job DOES use the word "angels" in chapter 4:
Job 4:18 Behold, he put no trust in his servants; and his angels he charged with folly:
Why would the author of the Book of Job use "sons of God" in 3 places but "angels" in another if they were both the same thing?

Now, as to Job 38:7 I have a theory that the "sons of God" in Job 38: 7 are all the believers who have ever lived and ever will live and that the laying of the "cornerstone" is after the second coming of Christ at the establishment of "Zion" or the New Jerusalem, wherein all of the saints will indeed "shout for joy". If this is so, it is a prophecy of a future event wherein every saint throughout history past present and future will be there. It is spoken in past tense as Isaiah 53 is. Some people call this the "prophetic perfect tense". But I theorize(there's that word again) that it is used in past tense here because God indeed HAS already laid the "cornerstone and foundations" because He exists in the past present and future all at the same time. So, when God asked Job:

Job 38:
4 Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth? declare, if thou hast understanding.

5 Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest? or who hath stretched the line upon it?

6 Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened? or who laid the corner stone thereof;

7 When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?

So, based on the interpretation above, the correct answer from Job, would have been "I was there"; because Job will in fact be among the saints at that future time. But God's question was too profound for Job, as Job did not have the complete Word of God like we have today.
I will reiterate before someone gets all up in arms: it is a THEORY.
Your strongest argument for the bene elohim not being angels is that they refer to a future group after Job's time. Unfortunately, that's inconsistent with the past-tense language surrounding vs 7. Also, Isaiah 53 is prophetically quoting the future Jewish remnant looking back on the sacrifice of Jesus. It is correctly written in the past tense because it is a future group recalling the past.
Virtually all the time-language in Scripture is anthropomorphic. Furthermore, you're simply asserting the B-theory of time as true without justifying it.

As for the location of the meeting in Job 1, the details strongly imply it is in heaven for many reasons. For example, (1) God didn't leave His place to come meet others...others left their place to come meet the God (vs 6). (2) "Earth" is spoken of different place, apart from where the meeting is happening (vs 7-8). (3) This "presenting" language has royal overtones and is commonly used when people come to the palace of a King (vs 6). (4) It is consistent with Psalm 89:5-7, where we see God's angels taking council in heaven (vs 5-7). (5) Satan is part of the group that approaches God (vs 1). To ignore all the implicit details of a heavenly scene is telling.

Job says the bene elohim were present when the foundations of the earth were made (creation-day 3). That was before any humans existed. Angels were present at creation according to Job 38:7.

If you can justify these things and show any indication that the bene elohim were humans, then I could go on about how the Bible mentions the sexual sin of angels after Genesis.
 
May 11, 2022
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If you can justify these things and show any indication that the bene elohim were humans, then I could go on about how the Bible mentions the sexual sin of angels after Genesis.
I apologize for not having time to address all of your post, but I will respond to this one
 
May 11, 2022
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If I am correct in assuming, you are referring to the angels in the Book of Jude. This is how it reads in the KJV....and I will highlight some key points.....

Jude
4 For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.

5 I will therefore put you in remembrance, though ye once knew this, how that the Lord, having saved the people out of the land of Egypt, afterward destroyed them that believed not.

6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.

7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.

8 Likewise also these filthy dreamers #1defile the flesh, #2despise dominion, and #3 speak evil of dignities.

The "certain men crept in unawares" are men at the time of Jude's writing. The angels, the children of Israel, and sodomites were old testament sinners. Jude is comparing these 3 groups of sinners to the sins of the "certain men crept in unawares". However, it is very clear in verse 7 that it was the sodomites where "defiling the flesh". The angels despised dominion, and the Israelites spoke evil of God and Moses, and Aaron.
 
May 15, 2024
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I personally do not know enough of the Bible to answer this question however I can speculate from the things I have been taught. Which is quite simply we do not know God's thoughts. The Nephilim are barely mentioned in Genesis let alone anywhere else that I have discovered so far.

My personal thoughts on it is if God saw they were good and repentive perhaps, although from what I have learned they were not all that good. The Earth before the flood was filled with evil. I doubt many if any were actually saved in the days leading up to the flood.
 
Sep 16, 2014
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In Genesis 6 we are introduced to the Nephilim (half angel--half human). The Bible never references whether or not they were evil....only that the angels that fathered them were part of the fallen ones. I know it says they were "men of renown." But it seems to imply that they were evil because after they came into being, everything bad starts to happen. However the Bible says nothing about them being angelic....meaning that they had no powers that angels would have. They aren't immortal. They can't fly. It seems like they are human with a human soul.

But we know that God doesn't create anything evil. God allowed the Nephilim to be born. Since they were born like a regular baby, and grew up like a regular human....does God view them differently than a regular human? Does He give them the same chances to repent of their sins? I can't imagine God allowing them to be born evil just because their angelic fathers' were evil. If that were the case, then they never had a choice. Even the angels themselves had a choice to either follow God or fall like Lucifer did. All humans are given a choice as well. This leads me to believe that the Nephilim were NOT created evil. However, I can find no evidence that any of the Nephilim were good.

So ultimately my question is this: Did God judge them differently from regular humans? After reading Ezekiel 18, I believe God judges them the same way he does a regular human. Ezekiel 18 talks specifically about the sins of father and son. I don't see anything about a son being held accountable for the actions of his father. However, it I am still confused because it appeared as if ALL the Nephilim were evil.

Hoping for some ideas on this.
Thanks Dreamdweller for your question. There are some misconceptions in popular views on this subject. Giants refers to humans, not creatures that were part of what people incorrectly presume angels to be and part human. We read in Genesis 6:4 about the sons of God coming in to the daughters of men. The 'sons of God' is a term that simply means believers. Galatians tells us: "And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father. " Again, we read: "Ye are the sons of the living God. " But when Gen 6:4 says that the believers came in unto the daughters of men, it means that the believers in question (not Noah and his family) began to mingle spiritually with those who were not believers. Thus, the report of wickedness in that chapter. 'Giants' is a Bible term that is talking about these fallen or spiritually wrong humans. Remember how the term is used when David fights Goliath. Goliath taunts the true believer David who is annointed by God. The giant, then, is a person against and at odds with the true believer. It is possible that such a wicked person would be religious but not receive those whom Christ has sent.

If I might speak briefly on the popular notion that giants were the result of angels that bred with humans. The problem with this is that people have popular notions of angels that is a wrong notion. They see angels as being different from humans, spiritual beings only who don't have a flesh body, and supernatural and all powerful. They probably think of them with wings and so forth, though perhaps they have some breadth in this understanding. Still, the Bible seems to indicate otherwise in terms of them being different from humans. The biggest reason for thinking of angels in this way comes from Hebrews 1:7: "And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire. " People get the notion, and it is a very very very common popular notion, that this is not talking about humans. However, this verse is simply saying that God's messengers have the spirit. God's messengers, the believers, have the spirit. God's ministers, the believers, are a flame of fire. The gospel comes out of the mouth of human true believers and it comes from the spirit. The message speaks of Jesus on the cross (God's sacrifice made by fire) and it burns up, spiritually speaking, that which will not last. Remember how the two witnesses(a picture of true believers) in Revelation have fire come out of their mouths. This is not literal language but figurative language of how anyone who rejects the gospel coming from the mouth of true believers will perish. Did you know that Jesus is called an angel? Genesis 48:16: "The Angel which redeemed me from all evil, bless the lads " The term angel simply means messenger. Jesus, for example is the chief messenger. Did you know that the Bible says that an angel is a man? "And he measured the wall thereof, an hundred and forty and four cubits, according to the measure of a man, that is, of the angel. "

So, when you hear popular notions of giants in Genesis 6 being weird hybrids of humans and some spiritual supernatural being that people think of as an angel, this is incorrect. These weird beings do not exist. Angels are human beings that are messengers. God's angels, that is God's messengers, are the true believers who have the gospel, God's message.
 

Diakonos

Well-known member
Jan 19, 2019
1,375
432
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Anacortes, WA
I apologize for not having time to address all of your post, but I will respond to this one...

If I am correct in assuming, you are referring to the angels in the Book of Jude. This is how it reads in the KJV....and I will highlight some key points.....

Jude
4 For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.

5 I will therefore put you in remembrance, though ye once knew this, how that the Lord, having saved the people out of the land of Egypt, afterward destroyed them that believed not.

6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.

7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.

8 Likewise also these filthy dreamers #1defile the flesh, #2despise dominion, and #3 speak evil of dignities.

The "certain men crept in unawares" are men at the time of Jude's writing. The angels, the children of Israel, and sodomites were old testament sinners. Jude is comparing these 3 groups of sinners to the sins of the "certain men crept in unawares". However, it is very clear in verse 7 that it was the sodomites where "defiling the flesh". The angels despised dominion, and the Israelites spoke evil of God and Moses, and Aaron.
I was just giving you a heads up about a possible route I might take with this conversation.
If you read it again, I said I would go on to angelic sin if you can justify "these things" (in post #387). Please respond to what I actually argued first.