Favourite Bible Translations

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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Umm, now you are going to original text when those text has since long gone. Are you trying to let me in the Original text cult? It might outdated according to the rest of the world, according to your opinion but it's neve been held wrong in its text. The seemeth wrong can be studied and understood, unlike newer ones mixed and adulterated. The word change one to another water downs interpretation.
no word for word English Bible is 100% accurate. that’s not possible,the English language is incapable of interpreting every Greek word, let alone the Greek rules of language are far superior to English.

I am not talking about some wording which may be different in other bibles. I am talking about any English Bible



I suggest you stop being like your friends and check your attitude at The door.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
24,824
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I challenge anyone who has used the phrase "watered down" to describe the newer translations:

Firstly, define "watered down" as you have used it; and,

Secondly, prove it.

Support your claim with actual verifiable evidence. No opinions or fallacious arguments will be considered, and your evidence is subject to assessment and critique.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,021
937
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no word for word English Bible is 100% accurate. that’s not possible,the English language is incapable of interpreting every Greek word, let alone the Greek rules of language are far superior to English.

I am not talking about some wording which may be different in other bibles. I am talking about any English Bible



I suggest you stop being like your friends and check your attitude at The door.
Perhaps you are talking about "literal translation" when you said "word for word in English" and KJV is not a literal translation as you may think. What I believe is that every Greek word has been translated correct in KJV. If you are one of that says No, then that is our difference. You further says Greek rules being superior to English, I believe they are just of the same level when they are translated correct, if it's not then it is wrong and this is what many new versions being identified with and accepted by newer version apologist. The Bible believer stand must have faith that God can preserve his words today in an ever unchanging word.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Perhaps you are talking about "literal translation" when you said "word for word in English" and KJV is not a literal translation as you may think. What I believe is that every Greek word has been translated correct in KJV. If you are one of that says No, then that is our difference. You further says Greek rules being superior to English, I believe they are just of the same level when they are translated correct, if it's not then it is wrong and this is what many new versions being identified with and accepted by newer version apologist. The Bible believer stand must have faith that God can preserve his words today in an ever unchanging word.
Word for word means that a Greek or Hebrew word is translated with the english equivilent

the kjv, NASB and others like it are considered word for word. The difference is they come from different sources, and the interpretor used different words.

fact is, there is 4 Greek words for love

there is one for English.

hence it is literally impossible to translate the Greek words into the English with a clear understanding of what is actually being said, since one English word is used to translate 4 different Greek words,

thus, one MUST consult the origional text In order to figure out what type of love is being spoken of, failure to do so may lead to a misunderstanding of the text. And if it does not, that’s called making a lucky guess

this is just one example

face it man, your declaring a flawed text as perfect. when it is not. You have no right claiming otherwise.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
I challenge anyone who has used the phrase "watered down" to describe the newer translations:

Firstly, define "watered down" as you have used it; and,

Secondly, prove it.

Support your claim with actual verifiable evidence. No opinions or fallacious arguments will be considered, and your evidence is subject to assessment and critique.
When Jesus asked Peter, do you agape me, and Peter replies, Lord I Phileo you

is it not technically watered down, if in translation the word says, Peter do you love me, and Peter replies, Lord I love you
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,021
937
113
Word for word means that a Greek or Hebrew word is translated with the english equivilent

the kjv, NASB and others like it are considered word for word. The difference is they come from different sources, and the interpretor used different words.

fact is, there is 4 Greek words for love

there is one for English.

hence it is literally impossible to translate the Greek words into the English with a clear understanding of what is actually being said, since one English word is used to translate 4 different Greek words,

thus, one MUST consult the origional text In order to figure out what type of love is being spoken of, failure to do so may lead to a misunderstanding of the text. And if it does not, that’s called making a lucky guess

this is just one example

face it man, your declaring a flawed text as perfect. when it is not. You have no right claiming otherwise.
Testing your fact:
One English word = 4 different Greek
  • Your example: love (English) = agape, phileo, eros, storge but there are other 2 you did not mention which are “Philautia” and Xenia which might not be used in the Bible.
  • Agape is translated as “dear”, “ love”, “charity” hence a Greek word can be translated in not just a single word in English.
Your fact???
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,021
937
113
I challenge anyone who has used the phrase "watered down" to describe the newer translations:

Firstly, define "watered down" as you have used it; and,

Secondly, prove it.

Support your claim with actual verifiable evidence. No opinions or fallacious arguments will be considered, and your evidence is subject to assessment and critique.
For your review please. Thanks

http://deanburgonsociety.org/Versions/gnosticism.htm
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Testing your fact:
One English word = 4 different Greek
  • Your example: love (English) = agape, phileo, eros, storge but there are other 2 you did not mention which are “Philautia” and Xenia which might not be used in the Bible.
  • Agape is translated as “dear”, “ love”, “charity” hence a Greek word can be translated in not just a single word in English.
Your fact???
Ok let’s take this and run with this idea

what Word you you use to interpret phileo?
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
11,782
2,952
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It appears you are unfamiliar with the translation of the KJV, perhaps you need to acquaint yourself with the translators, and the process?
Time Honored King James Version, 409 Years And Going Strong (y)

A Masterpiece, The King James Bible and its translators, all confessing Christian's, scholars beyond comparison!

For a closer look at the King James Bible and its translators, check out the attached link

I have an MDiv I got in seminary. We did not ever twist the Bible. In fact we learned how to correctly interpret the Bible, and how to read Hebrew and Greek. I took second year Greek with Bill Mounce, and I read my Bible daily in English (NET right now!) German and Greek. I'm on my second straight read through of the Greek NT, other versions in English I have read the Bible over 50 times!

I have lots of Greek and Hebrew tools like proper tools like lexicons and exegesis books. I've also studied the KJV. I compared the KJV to Hebrew in my Hebrew class. The word order of Hebrew is much closer to English, than Greek, so in grammar, the KJV does much better than its translation from Greek.

I've also studied manuscript evidence. Over 6000 copies of the Greek NT. But KJV is the worst translation from Greek I have ever read. I hate that so many words in the KJV are archaic and/or obsolete. Why on earth would I bother to look up a word in Early Modern English from the KJV, which doesn't exist in contemporary English?? I am much better reading the Greek, looking it up, or read a modern Bible that I can understand, and is close to the Greek, but not in word order, which is so different from English!

As far as the TR or Byzantine manuscripts, they date from the 800-900s AD. No connection back such as the three other families of manuscripts! That in itself makes them the worst manuscripts. Because the Byzantine Empire kept Greek as it language, they wanted to preserve their version of Greek. They had copying schools, where manuscripts were dictated, mistakes in hearing what was said, mistakes in writing it down, and the Byzantine favourite, making notes in the margins of the manuscript, which were read to the next generation of copyists, who incorporated into the text, handing down more and more additions every generation. And because they were Greek, with many monasteries, all these flawed manuscripts were stored carefully and are well preserved, and there are many more of them, than the manuscripts which are very old, not passed down mistakes for centuries. Any student of literature knows the closer you get to the original manuscripts, or autographs, means you get a better version, closer to the original autographs. KJV fails on that account alone.

Have you ever played telephone at a birthday party, or in school or Bible camp? The first person starts with a simple word or phrase. Each time it is transmitted to the next person, mistakes are made. By the last people, the word is not even close to the original word. That is the Byzantine manuscripts, and the KJV. Mistake after mistake. Including Luke 2:17 we talked about earlier, where one letter dropped, a sigma, makes the difference between universalism and saved by faith. The proper Genitive case has the sigma, it was lost by the 15th century AD, and translated as a nominative case, leading to the incorrect theology of universalism.

So it appears you are the one who is totally ignorant of the processes of translation, and why the TR had 1500 years of adding errors and grammatical mistakes. Perhaps you should take a few courses in Greek or Hebrew, and manuscript evidence, and well as Bible interpretation, or hermeneutics!! You certainly have been listening to people with no knowledge of the Greek or Hebrew, who make up nonsense, like the version with the MOST manuscripts wins! No, the manuscripts that are most reliable, win! Those closest to the original autographs. I am much more knowledgeable about languages than you will ever be!

PS I used to teach FSL and French immersion, when I was teaching, and I have a lot of course towards a French degree. I have a few years of German, too, which is why I read Martin Luther's updated translation.
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
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Gods word beliw claims preservation, where is this to be found today?

Psalm 12:6-7KJV
6 The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
7 Thou shalt keep them, O Lord, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.

Sorry this is so late!


What on earth does beliw mean?

As for Psalms 12:6-7, it applies to any reasonable version of the Bible. It does not refer to a mistake laden KJV. (Only!!)
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
11,782
2,952
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Is there an agreement between UBS and the Vatican? Whether this be "later on" the two text was shared and was adopted by Bible Societies and so Yes there is an Actual Agreement.
Link? Source?
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
11,782
2,952
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The NIV, ESV dosent preserve the verses below in Gods word, they are preserved in the KJV

It's not a matter of let's hold hands and skip down the yellow brick road to the Kingdom of OZ

One translation is preservation, the other isnt

You cant have a Dollar bill without serial numbers, it's a (Counterfeit) of the true currency?

Below, Verses Missing In The Greek, Alexandian Text Type?

Matthew 17:21
Matthew 18:11
Acts 8:37
Roman's 16:24

I fully understand my english KJV that is supported by the Greek Byzantine Textual Family, including the text the church received and used (Textus Receptus)

I dont use the new translations, supported by the 1%< minority of manuscript evidence, in the Alexandrian Text Type

It's that simple, its not archaic words as you claim, its a completely foreign Greek Text, that the Church has never used or received.

Its that simple Byzantine v Alexandrian

You are forgetting the Western family and the Caesarian Families. Both, along with the Alexandrian Manuscripts are found very early, and without all the added words found in the Byzantium Family.

This is why I do not trust the KJV. It is not accurate!
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,021
937
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Ok let’s take this and run with this idea

what Word you you use to interpret phileo?
If you want to say something about the Greek phileo then you are free to do that but so far, it can be used interchangeably with agape and so what's yours that I may don't know for now so that you could fill up. Thanks
 
Nov 15, 2020
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Newcastle, NSW, Australia
By these comments you disqualify yourself from reasoned discussion.

Next time you come in firing your guns, make sure they aren't loaded with blanks.
so, is the "american standard" the standard version ?
and compared to that of the 1611 KJV, which has stood the test of time.
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
12,967
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I primarily use the NIV for study and daily reading because of its popularity. But I also use the ESV and NKJV because they are the translations of some very wonderful study Bibles
I am curious to know some favourite Bible translations of other Christians and why they chose them.
I like the kjv now days , but began with a niv, when I realized it’s ever changing I sort of got frustrated when I compared a new one to an original niv there were a lot of differences and seemed to be sort of big differences too . I like the poetic language of the kjv but understand others who can’t follow or don’t like the frustration of not understanding some of the words that are antiquated
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,021
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Lanolin

Well-known member
Dec 15, 2018
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depends on the manuscript that the translation was based on...for kjv it was textus teceptus, and used the byzantians manuscripts. The alexandrians manuscripts are said to be corrupted.
when you compare the two loads of verses are missing from the alexandrians.

it suggests copying errors.
Not that scripture has been added but that scripture has been omitted.

I would go for the fuller text. I would also pray and ask God, as each word is inspired, you can just ask Him which translation is more accurate.

I always got God showing me KJV. all the time.
 

Lanolin

Well-known member
Dec 15, 2018
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alexandrian -- minority text
byzantium --- majority text

byzantium texts were copied more and the majority agreed with each other
the alexandrian texts were copied less and mostly dont agree with each other. This suggests much of the manuscripts was missing and not used.

People seem to think that becuase a copy is not copied so much that its better. But actually it was not copied a lot because it had ommited scriptures. Nobody really wants to read a readers digest abridged bible. Its only of interest to scholars who have a field day with it.